Walden NUrs6630 final exam August 2018

Question

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QUESTION 1

What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity?

A.

Stimulants

B.

Antidepressants

C.

Antipsychotics

D.

SSRIs

1 points

QUESTION 2

The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism?

A.

First-generation, conventional antipsychotics

B.

First-generation, atypical antipsychotics

C.

Second-generation, conventional antipsychotics

D.

Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics

1 points

QUESTION 3

The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?

A.

The doses are based on achieving 100% D2 receptor occupancy.

B.

The doses are based on achieving a minimum of 80% D2 receptor occupancy.

C.

The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy.

D.

None of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 4

Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression?

A.

There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects.

B.

It can exaggerate the psychotic symptoms.

C.

Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy.

D.

There is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent.

1 points

QUESTION 5

The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient? </p?

A.

Explaining to the patient that there are no risks of EPS

B.

Prescribing the patient 12 mg/dail

C.

Titrating the dose by increasing it every 5?7 days

D.

Writing a prescription for a higher dose of oral risperidone (Risperdal) to achieve high D2 receptor occupancy

1 points

QUESTION 6

The PMHNP wants to prescribe Mr. Barber a mood stabilizer that will target aggressive and impulsive symptoms by decreasing dopaminergic neurotransmission. Which mood stabilizer will the PMHNP select?

A.

Lithium (Lithane)

B.

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

C.

Valproate (Depakote)

D.

Topiramate (Topamax)

1 points

QUESTION 7

The parents of a 7-year-old patient with ADHD are concerned about the effects of stimulants on their child. The parents prefer to start pharmacological treatment with a non-stimulant. Which medication will the PMHNP will most likely prescribe?

A.

Strattera

B.

Concerta

C.

Daytrana

D.

Adderall

1 points

QUESTION 8

The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD?

A.

8-year-old patient

B.

24-year-old patient

C.

55-year-old patient

D.

82-year-old patient

1 points

QUESTION 9

A patient is prescribed D-methylphenidate, 10-mg extended-release capsules. What should the PMHNP include when discussing the side effects with the patient?

A.

The formulation can have delayed actions when taken with food.

B.

Sedation can be a common side effect of the drug.

C.

The medication can affect your blood pressure.

D.

This drug does not cause any dependency.

1 points

QUESTION 10

The PMHNP is teaching parents about their child?s new prescription for Ritalin. What will the PMHNP include in the teaching?

A.

The second dose should be taken at lunch.

B.

There are no risks for insomnia.

C.

There is only one daily dose, to be taken in the morning.

D.

There will be continued effects into the evening.

1 points

QUESTION 11

A young patient is prescribed Vyvanse. During the follow-up appointment, which comment made by the patient makes the PMHNP think that the dosing is being done incorrectly?

A.

?I take my pill at breakfast.?

B.

?I am unable to fall asleep at night.?

C.

?I feel okay all day long.?

D.

?I am not taking my pill at lunch.?

1 points

QUESTION 12

A 14-year-old patient is prescribed Strattera and asks when the medicine should be taken. What does the PMHNP understand regarding the drug?s dosing profile?

A.

The patient should take the medication at lunch.

B.

The patient will have one or two doses a day.

C.

The patient will take a pill every 17 hours.

D.

The dosing should be done in the morning and at night.

1 points

QUESTION 13

The PMHNP is meeting with the parents of an 8-year-old patient who is receiving an initial prescription for D-amphetamine. The PMHNP demonstrates appropriate prescribing practices when she prescribes the following dose:

A.

The child will be prescribed 2.5 mg.

B.

The child will be prescribed a 10-mg tablet.

C.

The child?s dose will increase by 2.5 mg every other week.

D.

The child will take 10?40 mg, daily.

1 points

QUESTION 14

A patient is being prescribed bupropion and is concerned about the side effects. What will the PMHNP tell the patient regarding bupropion?

A.

Weight gain is not unusual.

B.

Sedation may be common.

C.

It can cause cardiac arrhythmias.

D.

It may amplify fatigue.

1 points

QUESTION 15

Which patient will receive a lower dose of guanfacine?

A.

Patient who has congestive heart failure

B.

Patient who has cerebrovascular disease

C.

Patient who is pregnant

D.

Patient with kidney disease

1 points

QUESTION 16

An 18-year-old female with a history of frequent headaches and a mood disorder is prescribed topiramate (Topamax), 25 mg by mouth daily. The PMHNP understands that this medication is effective in treating which condition(s) in this patient?

A.

Migraines

B.

Bipolar disorder and depression

C.

Pregnancy-induced depression

D.

Upper back pain

1 points

QUESTION 17

The PMHNP is treating a patient for fibromyalgia and is considering prescribing milnacipran (Savella). When prescribing this medication, which action is the PMHNP likely to choose?

A.

Monitor liver function every 6 months for a year and then yearly thereafter.

B.

Monitor monthly weight.

C.

Split the daily dose into two doses after the first day.

D.

Monitor for occult blood in the stool.

1 points

QUESTION 18

The PMHNP is assessing a patient she has been treating with the diagnosis of chronic pain. During the assessment, the patient states that he has recently been having trouble getting to sleep and staying asleep. Based on this information, what action is the PMHNP most likely to take?

A.

Order hydroxyzine (Vistaril), 50 mg PRN or as needed

B.

Order zolpidem (Ambien), 5mg at bedtime

C.

Order melatonin, 5mg at bedtime

D.

Order quetiapine (Seroquel), 150 mg at bedtime

1 points

QUESTION 19

The PMHNP is assessing a female patient who has been taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) for migraine prophylaxis. After discovering that the patient has reached the maximum dose of this medication, the PMHNP decides to change the patient?s medication to zonisamide (Zonegran). In addition to evaluating this patient?s day-to-day activities, what should the PMHNP ensure that this patient understands?

A.

Monthly blood levels must be drawn.

B.

ECG monitoring must be done once every 3 months.

C.

White blood cell count must be monitored weekly.

D.

This medication has unwanted side effects such as sedation, lack of coordination, and drowsiness.

1 points

QUESTION 20

A patient recovering from shingles presents with tenderness and sensitivity to the upper back. He states it is bothersome to put a shirt on most days. This patient has end stage renal disease (ESRD) and is scheduled to have hemodialysis tomorrow but states that he does not know how he can lie in a recliner for 3 hours feeling this uncomfortable. What will be the PMHNP?s priority?

A.

Order herpes simplex virus (HSV) antibody testing

B.

Order a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine STAT

C.

Prescribe lidocaine 5%

D.

Prescribe hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2mg

1 points

QUESTION 21

The PMHNP prescribed a patient lamotrigine (Lamictal), 25 mg by mouth daily, for nerve pain 6 months ago. The patient suddenly presents to the office with the complaint that the medication is no longer working and complains of increased pain. What action will the PMHNP most likely take?

A.

Increase the dose of lamotrigine (Lamictal) to 25 mg twice daily.

B.

Ask if the patient has been taking the medication as prescribed.

C.

Order gabapentin (Neurontin), 100 mg three times a day, because lamotrigine (Lamictal) is no longer working for this patient.

D.

Order a complete blood count (CBC) to assess for an infection.

1 points

QUESTION 22

An elderly woman with a history of Alzheimer?s disease, coronary artery disease, and myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the PMHNP is made aware that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the PMHNP most likely to do?

A.

Order an X-ray because it is possible that she dislocated her hip.

B.

Order ibuprofen (Motrin) because she may need long-term treatment and chronic pain is not uncommon.

C.

Order naproxen (Naprosyn) because she may have arthritis and chronic pain is not uncommon.

D.

Order Morphine and physical therapy.

1 points

QUESTION 23

The PMHNP is assessing a 49-year-old male with a history of depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), alcoholism with malnutrition, diabetes mellitus type 2, and hypertension. His physical assessment is unremarkable with the exception of peripheral edema bilaterally to his lower extremities and a chief complaint of pain with numbness and tingling to each leg 5/10. The PMHNP starts this patient on a low dose of doxepin (Sinequan). What is the next action that must be taken by the PMHNP?

A.

Orders liver function tests.

B.

Educate the patient on avoiding grapefruits when taking this medication.

C.

Encourage this patient to keep fluids to 1500 ml/day until the swelling subsides.

D.

Order a BUN/Creatinine test.

1 points

QUESTION 24

The PMHNP is evaluating a 30-year-old female patient who states that she notices pain and a drastic change in mood before the start of her menstrual cycle. The patient states that she has tried diet and lifestyle changes but nothing has worked. What will the PMHNP most likely do?

A.

Prescribe Estrin FE 24 birth control

B.

Prescribe ibuprofen (Motrin), 800 mg every 8 hours as needed for pain

C.

Prescribe desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), 50 mg daily

D.

Prescribe risperidone (Risperdal), 2 mg TID

1 points

QUESTION 25

A patient with chronic back pain has been prescribed a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). How does the PMHNP describe the action of SNRIs on the inhibition of pain to the patient?

A.

?The SNRI can increase noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.?

B.

?The SNRI can decrease noradrenergic neurotransmission in the descending spinal pathway to the dorsal horn.?

C.

?The SNRI can reduce brain atrophy by slowing the gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.?

D.

?The SNRI can increase neurotransmission to descending neurons.?

1 points

QUESTION 26

A patient with fibromyalgia and major depression needs to be treated for symptoms of pain. Which is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe for this patient?

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Clozapine (Clozaril)

Phenytoin (Dilantin)

1 points

QUESTION 27

The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient?s chronic pain. How does the PMHNP anticipate the drug to work?

A.

It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive calcium channels.

B.

It will induce synaptic changes, including sprouting.

C.

It will act on the presynaptic neuron to trigger sodium influx.

D.

It will inhibit activity of dorsal horn neurons to suppress body input from reaching the brain.

1 points

QUESTION 28

Mrs. Rosen is a 49-year-old patient who is experiencing fibro-fog. What does the PMHNP prescribe for Mrs. Rosen to improve this condition?

A.

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

B.

Armodafinil (Nuvigil)

C.

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

D.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 29

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with fibromyalgia. Which second-line treatment does the PMHNP select that may be effective for managing this patient?s pain?

A.

Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

B.

Viloxazine (Vivalan)

C.

Imipramine (Tofranil)

D.

Bupropion (Wellbutrin

1 points

QUESTION 30

The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient?s chronic pain by having the agent bind the open channel conformation of VSCCs to block those channels with a ?use-dependent? form of inhibition. Which agent will the PMHNP most likely select?

A.

Pregabalin (Lyrica)

B.

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

C.

Modafinil (Provigil)

D.

Atomoxetine (Strattera)

1 points

QUESTION 31

A patient with irritable bowel syndrome reports chronic stomach pain. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient an agent that will cause irrelevant nociceptive inputs from the pain to be ignored and no longer perceived as painful. Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe?

A.

Pregabalin (Lyrica)

B.

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

C.

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

D.

B and C

1 points

QUESTION 32

The PMHNP wants to use a symptom-based approach to treating a patient with fibromyalgia. How does the PMHNP go about treating this patient?

A.

Prescribing the patient an agent that ignores the painful symptoms by initiating a reaction known as ?fibro-fog?

B.

Targeting the patient?s symptoms with anticonvulsants that inhibit gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

C.

Matching the patient?s symptoms with the malfunctioning brain circuits and neurotransmitters that might mediate those symptoms

D.

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 33

The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient?s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.

?SSRIs only increase norepinephrine levels.?

B.

?SSRIs only increase serotonin levels.?

C.

?SSRIs increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels.?

D.

?SSRIs do not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels.?

1 points

QUESTION 34

A patient with gambling disorder and no other psychiatric comorbidities is being treated with pharmacological agents. Which drug is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe?

A.

Antipsychotics

B.

Lithium

C.

SSRI

D.

Naltrexone

1 points

QUESTION 35

Kevin is an adolescent who has been diagnosed with kleptomania. His parents are interested in seeking pharmacological treatment. What does the PMHNP tell the parents regarding his treatment options?

A.

?Naltrexone may be an appropriate option to discuss.?

B.

?There are many medicine options that treat kleptomania.?

C.

?Kevin may need to be prescribed antipsychotics to treat this illness.?

D.

?Lithium has proven effective for treating kleptomania.?

1 points

QUESTION 36

Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression?

A.

Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers can eradicate limbic irritability.

B.

Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation.

C.

Stimulants can be used to decrease frontal inhibition.

D.

Opioid antagonists can be used to reduce drive.

1 points

QUESTION 37

A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient?

A.

It will prevent feelings of euphoria.

B.

It will amplify impulse control.

C.

It will block testosterone.

D.

It will redirect the patient to think about other things.

1 points

QUESTION 38

Mrs. Kenner is concerned that her teenage daughter spends too much time on the Internet. She inquires about possible treatments for her daughter?s addiction. Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of pharmacologic approaches for compulsive disorders?

A.

?Compulsive Internet use can be treated similarly to how we treat people with substance use disorders.?

B.

?Internet addiction is treated with drugs that help block the tension/arousal state your daughter experiences.?

C.

?When it comes to Internet addiction, we prefer to treat patients with pharmaceuticals rather than psychosocial methods.?

D.

?There are no evidence-based treatments for Internet addiction, but there are behavioral therapies your daughter can try.?

1 points

QUESTION 39

Mr. Peterson is meeting with the PMHNP to discuss healthier dietary habits. With a BMI of 33, Mr. Peterson is obese and needs to modify his food intake. ?Sometimes I think I?m addicted to food the way some people are addicted to drugs,? he says. Which statement best describes the neurobiological parallels between food and drug addiction?

A.

There is decreased activation of the prefrontal cortex.

B.

There is increased sensation of the reactive reward system.

C.

There is reduced activation of regions that process palatability.

D.

There are amplified reward circuits that activate upon consumption.

1 points

QUESTION 40

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient?s brain from a hyperactive state to a sleep state?

A.

Histamine 2 receptor antagonist

B.

Benzodiazepines

C.

Stimulants

D.

Caffeine

1 points

QUESTION 41

The PMHNP is caring for a patient who experiences too much overstimulation and anxiety during daytime hours. The patient agrees to a pharmacological treatment but states, ?I don?t want to feel sedated or drowsy from the medicine.? Which decision made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper knowledge of this patient?s symptoms and appropriate treatment options?

A.

Avoiding prescribing the patient a drug that blocks H1 receptors

B.

Prescribing the patient a drug that acts on H2 receptors

C.

Stopping the patient from taking medicine that unblocks H1 receptors

D.

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 42

The PMHNP is performing a quality assurance peer review of the chart of another PMHNP. Upon review, the PMHNP reviews the chart of an older adult patient in long-term care facility who has chronic insomnia. The chart indicates that the patient has been receiving hypnotics on a nightly basis. What does the PMHNP find problematic about this documentation?

A.

Older adult patients are contraindicated to take hypnotics.

B.

Hypnotics have prolonged half-lives that can cause drug accumulation in the elderly.

C.

Hypnotics have short half-lives that render themselves ineffective for older adults.

D.

Hypnotics are not effective for ?symptomatically masking? chronic insomnia in the elderly.

1 points

QUESTION 43

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who is worried about pharmacological treatment because the patient does not want to experience dependence. Which pharmacological treatment approach will the PMHNP likely select for this patient for a limited duration, while searching and correcting the underlying pathology associated with the insomnia?

A.

Serotonergic hypnotics

B.

Antihistamines

C.

Benzodiazepine hypnotics

D.

Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics

1 points

QUESTION 44

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with chronic insomnia who would benefit from taking hypnotics. The PMHNP wants to prescribe the patient a drug with an ultra-short half-life (1?3 hours). Which drug will the PMHNP prescribe?

A.

Flurazepam (Dalmane)

B.

Estazolam (ProSom)

C.

Triazolam (Halcion)

D.

Zolpidem CR (Ambien)

1 points

QUESTION 45

The PMHNP is attempting to treat a patient?s chronic insomnia and wishes to start with an initial prescription that has a half-life of approximately 1?2 hours. What is the most appropriate prescription for the PMHNP to make?

A.

Triazolam (Halcion)

B.

Quazepam (Doral)

C.

Temazepam (Restoril)

D.

Flurazepam (Dalmane)

1 points

QUESTION 46

A patient with chronic insomnia asks the PMHNP if they can first try an over-the-counter (OTC) medication before one that needs to be prescribed to help the patient sleep. Which is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.

?There are no over-the-counter medications that will help you sleep.?

B.

?You can choose from one of the five benzo hypnotics that are approved in the United States.?

C.

?You will need to ask the pharmacist for a non-benzodiazepine medicine.?

D.

?You can get melatonin over the counter, which will help with sleep onset.?

1 points

QUESTION 47

A patient with chronic insomnia and depression is taking trazodone (Oleptro) but complains of feeling drowsy during the day. What can the PMHNP do to reduce the drug?s daytime sedating effects?

A.

Prescribe the patient an antihistamine to reverse the sedating effects

B.

Increasing the patient?s dose and administer it first thing in the morning

C.

Give the medicine at night and lower the dose

D.

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 48

The PMHNP is teaching a patient with a sleep disorder about taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl). The patient is concerned about the side effects of the drug. What can the PMHNP teach the patient about this treatment approach?

A.

?It can cause diarrhea.?

B.

?It can cause blurred vision.?

C.

?It can cause increased salivation.?

D.

?It can cause heightened cognitive effects.?

1 points

QUESTION 49

Parents of a 12-year-old boy want to consider attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) medication for their son. Which medication would the PMHNP start?

Methylphenidate

Amphetamine salts

Atomoxetine

All of the above could potentially treat their son?s symptoms.

1 points

QUESTION 50

An adult patient presents with a history of alcohol addiction and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Given these comorbidities, the PMHNP determines which of the following medications may be the best treatment option?

A.

Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta)

B.

Amphetamine

C.

Atomoxetine (Strattera)

D.

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

1 points

QUESTION 51

An 8-year-old patient presents with severe hyperactivity, described as ?ants in his pants.? Based on self-report from the patient, his parents, and his teacher; attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is

NR512 week 1 Scholarly Communication Quiz 2019

Question

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Question 15 pts

Which of the following is the correct way to reference a book in APA format:

Weber, J., & Kelley, J. (2017). Health assessment in nursing. Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer.

Weber, J., & Kelley, J. (2017) Health assessment in nursing, Philadelphia.

Weber, J., & Kelley, J., 2017, Health assessment in nursing. Wolters Kluwer: Philadelphia

Weber, J., & Kelley, J. Health assessment in nursing. Wolters Kluwer. Philadelphia.

Flag this Question

Question 25 pts

Choose the correct citation for this article in the text of a paper or discussion post for the first time?

Du, et al. (2013)

Du, S., Liu, Z., Liu, S., Yin, H., Xu, G., Zhang, H. and Wang, A. (2013)

Du et al. (2013)

Du, Liu, Liu, Yin, Xu, Zhang, and Wang, (2013)

Flag this Question

Question 35 pts

When using paraphrased or summarized content within your writings, the in-text citation must include which of the following?

The author?s last name and date of publication

The title of the document and the author?s last name

The author?s last name and the page number

The title of the document and the date of publication

Flag this Question

Question 45 pts

When citing two sources which both have the same author and year, which format should be followed?

Only use one of the sources since there is no way to differentiate between the two sources

Add a lower-case letter to the year to differentiate between the two sources ? for example 2018a

Cite both sources in the same exact manner

Add a number at the end of the author?s name ? for example Smith 1

Flag this Question

Question 55 pts

When referencing a web page, when should the writer include the ?retrieval date??

Use the retrieval date when the source is a PDF

Use the retrieval date when the material may change over time

Use the retrieval date when the writer cites a web page

The retrieval date is not required

Flag this Question

Question 65 pts

Which of the following is true regarding Digital Object Identifier?s (DOI):

They cite online articles

They offer an online link to the source

They always begin with the number 10

All of the above

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Question 75 pts

Which of the following typeface and font size are APA format approved:

Arial Narrow or Times New Roman in 12-point font size

Times New Roman in 10-point font size

Any typeface is acceptable as long as 12-point font size is used

Times New Roman in 12-point font size

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Question 85 pts

Which of the following is the correct in-text parenthetical citation format for the source listed below:

Title: Absolute and Relative Contraindications to IV rt-PA for Acute Ischemic Stroke

Authors: Fugate, J. E., & Rabinstein, A. A.

Journal: The Neurohospitalist

Volume #: 5

Date Published: 2015

Page Numbers: 110-121

(Jennifer Fugate & Alejandro Rabinstein, p. 110-121)

Fugate and Rabinstein (2015)

(Fugate & Rabinstein, 2015)

Fugate et al. (2015)

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Question 95 pts

Which of the following is the correct APA reference for the following source when a DOI is not available?

Title: Absolute and Relative Contraindications to IV rt-PA for Acute Ischemic Stroke

Authors: Fugate, J. E., & Rabinstein, A. A.

Journal: The Neurohospitalist

Volume #: 5

Date Published: 2015

Page Numbers: 110-121

Fugate, J. E., & Rabinstein, A. A. (2015). Absolute and relative contraindications to IV rt-PA for acute ischemic stroke. The Neurohospitalist, 5, 110-121.

Fugate, J. E., & Rabinstein, A. A. (2015). Absolute and Relative Contraindications to IV rt-PA for Acute Ischemic Stroke. The Neurohospitalist, 5, 110-121.

Fugate, J. E., & Rabinstein, A. A. (2015). Absolute and Relative Contraindications to IV rt-PA for Acute Ischemic Stroke. The Neurohospitalist, 5(3), 110-121.

Fugate, J. E., & Rabinstein, A. A. (2015). Absolute and relative contraindications to IV rt-PA for acute ischemic stroke. The Neurohospitalist, 5(3), 110-121.

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Question 105 pts

Identify the correct format for a full reference for the following chapter in a textbook

Textbook: Teaching in nursing: A guide for faculty

Editors of textbook: D. Billings, & J. Halstead

Chapter title: Forces and issues influencing curriculum development

Author of chapter: Veltri, L., & Barber, H

Other information: publication date 2016, pages of chapter 73-88. Published by Saunders in St. Louis, MO

Veltri, L., & Barber, H. (2016). Forces and issues influencing curriculum development. In D. Billings, & J. Halstead, (Eds). Teaching in nursing: A guide for faculty. St. Louis, MO: Saunders.

Veltri, L., & Barber, H. (2016). Forces and issues influencing curriculum development. In D. Billings, & J. Halstead, (Eds.), Teaching in nursing: A guide for faculty (pp. 73-88). St. Louis, MO: Saunders.

Billings, D., & Halstead, J. (2016). Forces and issues influencing curriculum development. In Veltri, L., & Barber, H. Teaching in nursing: A guide for faculty (5th ed., pp. 73-88). St. Louis, MO: Saunders.

Billings, & J. Halstead. (2016). Forces and issues influencing curriculum development. Teaching in nursing: A guide for faculty (5th ed., pp. 73-88). St. Louis, MO: Saunders.

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NR503 Epidemiology midterm 2019

Question

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NR 503
Epidemiology midterm questions & answers:

1.
The population of a city on
February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that
collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month.
During the period between January 1 and April 1, 2005, 2,200 new cases of
influenza occurred in the city. Of these cases, 775 persons were ill with
influenza according to surveillance reports on April 1, 2005. The prevalence
rate of active influenza as of April 1, 2005, was:

2.
The population of a city on
February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that
collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month.
During the period between January 1 and April 1, 2005, 2,200 new cases of
influenza occurred in the city. Of these cases, 775 persons were ill with
influenza according to surveillance reports on April 1, 2005. The monthly
incidence rate of active cases of influenza for the 3-month period was:

3.
What would be the effect on
age-specific incidence rates of uterine cancer if women with hysterectomies
were excluded from the denominator of incidence calculations assuming that most
women who have had hysterectomies are older than 50 years of age?

4.
The ability of a single person
to remain free of clinical illness following exposure to an infectious agent is
known as:

5.
Which of the following reasons
can explain why a person who did not consume the infective food item got sick?

6.
Which of the food items (or
combination of items) is most likely to be the infective item(s)?

7.
The case-fatality rate
associated with plague is lowest in which community?

8.
The incidence and prevalence
rates of a chronic childhood illness for a specific community are given below.

9.
The following table gives the
mean annual age-specific mortality rates from measles during the first 25 years
of life in successive 5-year periods. You may assume that the population is in
a steady state (i.e., migrations out are equal to migrations in).

Based on the information
above, one may conclude:

10.
In a country with a population
of 16 million people, 175,000 deaths occurred during the year ending December
31, 2005. These included 45,000 deaths from tuberculosis (TB) in 135,000
persons who were sick with TB. Assume that the population remained constant
throughout the year. Not all 135,000 cases of TB were contracted during 2005.
Which of the following statements is true?

11.
In 2001, a state enacted a law
that required the use of safety seats for all children under 7 years of age and
mandatory seatbelt use for all persons. The table above lists the number of
deaths due to motor vehicle accidents (MVAs) and the total population by age in
2000 (before the law) and in 2005 (4 years after the law was enacted).

12.
Which of the following is an
advantage of active surveillance?

13.
A disease has an incidence of
10 per 1,000 persons per year, and 80% of those affected will die within 1
year. Prior to the year 2000, only 50% of cases of the disease were detected by
physician diagnosis prior to death. In the year 2000, a lab test was developed
that identified 90% of cases an average of 6 months prior to symptom onset;
however, the prognosis did not improve after diagnosis. Which statement is true
concerning the duration of the disease after the development of the lab test?

14.
What is the overall attack rate
in persons who did not eat ice cream?

15.
The table above describes the
number of illnesses and deaths caused by plague in four communities. The
proportionate mortality ratio associated with plague is lowest in which community?

16.
Which of the following is
characteristic of a single-exposure, common-vehicle outbreak?

17.
The following table gives the mean annual
age-specific mortality rates from measles during the first 25 years of life in
successive 5-year periods. You may assume that the population is in a steady
state (i.e., migrations out are equal to migrations in).

18.
A disease has an incidence of
10 per 1,000 persons per year, and 80% of those affected will die within 1
year. Prior to the year 2000, only 50% of cases of the disease were detected by
physician diagnosis prior to death. In the year 2000, a lab test was developed
that identified 90% of cases an average of 6 months prior to symptom onset;
however, the prognosis did not improve after diagnosis. Comparing the
epidemiology of the disease prior to 2000 with the epidemiology of the disease
after the development of the lab test, which statement is true concerning the
disease in 2000?

19.
A survey was conducted among
1,000 randomly sampled adult males in the United States in 2005. The results
from this survey are shown below.

The researchers stated
that there was a doubling of risk of hypertension in each age group younger
than 60 years of age. You conclude that the researchers’ interpretation:

20.
Which of the following is a
condition which may occur during the incubation period?

21.
The incidence and prevalence
rates of a chronic childhood illness for a specific community are given below.

Based on the data, which
of the following interpretations best describes disease X?

22.
A disease has an incidence of
10 per 1,000 persons per year, and 80% of those affected will die within 1
year. Prior to the year 2000, only 50% of cases of the disease were detected by
physician diagnosis prior to death. In the year 2000, a lab test was developed
that identified 90% of cases an average of 6 months prior to symptom onset;
however, the prognosis did not improve after diagnosis. Which statement is true
concerning the disease-specific mortality rate after the development of the lab
test?

23.
Among those who are 25 years of
age, those who have been driving less than 5 years had 13,700 motor vehicle
accidents in 1 year, while those who had been driving for more than 5 years had
21,680 motor vehicle accidents during the same time period. It was concluded
from these data that 25-year-olds with more driving experience have increased
accidents compared to those who started driving later. This conclusion is:

24.
In a country with a population
of 16 million people, 175,000 deaths occurred during the year ending December
31, 2005. These included 45,000 deaths from tuberculosis (TB) in 135,000
persons who were sick with TB. Assume that the population remained constant
throughout the year. Not all 135,000 cases of TB were contracted during 2005.
Which of the following statements is true?

25.
Which of the following is a
condition which may occur during the incubation period?

26.
Test A has a sensitivity of 95%
and a specificity of 90%. Test B has a sensitivity of 80% and a specificity of
98%. In a community of 10,000 people with 5% prevalence of the disease, Test A
has always been given before Test B. What is the best reason for changing the
order of the tests?

27.
In 2001, a state enacted a law
that required the use of safety seats for all children under 7 years of age and
mandatory seatbelt use for all persons. The table above lists the number of
deaths due to motor vehicle accidents (MVAs) and the total population by age in
2000 (before the law) and in 2005 (4 years after the law was enacted).

Based on the information
in the table, it was reported that there was an increased risk of death due to
MVAs in the state after the law was passed. These conclusions are:

28.
Which of the food items (or
combination of items) is most likely to be the infective item(s)?

29.
Which of the following reasons
can explain why a person who did not consume the infective food item got sick?

30.
Which of the following are
examples of a population prevalence rate?

31.
The table above describes the
number of illnesses and deaths caused by plague in four communities. The case-fatality
rate associated with plague is lowest in which community?

32.
What would be the effect on
age-specific incidence rates of uterine cancer if women with hysterectomies
were excluded from the denominator of incidence calculations assuming that most
women who have had hysterectomies are older than 50 years of age?

33.
A disease has an incidence of
10 per 1,000 persons per year, and 80% of those affected will die within 1
year. Prior to the year 2000, only 50% of cases of the disease were detected by
physician diagnosis prior to death. In the year 2000, a lab test was developed
that identified 90% of cases an average of 6 months prior to symptom onset;
however, the prognosis did not improve after diagnosis. Which statement is true
concerning the duration of the disease after the development of the lab test?

34.
For colorectal cancer diagnosed
at an early stage, the disease can have 5-year survival rates of greater than
80%. Which answer best describes early stage colorectal cancer?

35.
A study found that adults older
than age 50 had a higher prevalence of pneumonia than those who were younger
than age 50. Which of the following is consistent with this finding?

36.
What is the overall attack rate
in persons who did not eat ice cream?

37.
Chicken pox is a highly
communicable disease. It may be transmitted by direct contact with a person
infected with the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The typical incubation time is
between 10 to 20 days. A boy started school 2 weeks after showing symptoms of
chicken pox including mild fever, skin rash, and fluid-filled blisters. One
month after the boy returned to school, none of his classmates had been
infected by VZV. The main reason was:

38.
Which of the following is an
advantage of active surveillance?

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Why is it important to understand usability, configurability

Question

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Implementation of New Systems

Recorded presentation between 7 and 12 minutes in length. The presentation should include a PowerPoint and oral presentation of the slides. There is no slide number requirement. Answer all questions thoroughly with the allotted time. Be sure to include a title slide, objective slide, content slides, reference slide in APA format. Use the appropriate APA style in-text citations and references for all resources utilized to answer the questions. Include at least three (3) scholarly citations to support your claims. This assignment uses a rubric for scoring. Please review it as part of your assignment preparation and again prior to submission to ensure you have addressed its criteria at the highest level. Save your assignment as an MP4 document (.mp4) or link.

You are a project manager assigned to implementing a new computer system in an organization:

– Why is it important to understand usability, configurability, and interoperability? Should these concepts outweigh the underlining cost of the new system? Which system do you recommend and why?
– During phase one, you are selecting a team. What characteristics are important to consider when selecting a team?
– During phase two the following principle was discussed, ?lead with culture, determining where the resistance is,? and then, engage all levels of employees (Sipes, 2019, p. 161). What does this principle mean to you and how can you implement this principle?
– How will you handle physician and other key professionals’ resistance to change and using the new system?
– Discuss possible pitfalls during the implementation phase and how you can avoid them?
– Describe your personal experience with automation and new information systems.

Assignment Expectations:

Length: Recorded presentation between 7 and 12 minutes in length. The presentation should include a Power Point and oral presentation of the slides. There is no slide number requirement. Answer all questions thoroughly with the allotted time. Use www.screencast-o-matic.comor other software to record your presentation as an mp4.

Structure: Include a title slide, objective slide, content slides, reference slide in APA format.

References: Use the appropriate APA style in-text citations and references for all resources utilized to answer the questions. Include at least three (3) scholarly sources to support your claims.

Rubric: This assignment uses a rubric for scoring. Please review it as part of your assignment preparation and again prior to submission to ensure you have addressed its criteria at the highest level.

Format: Save your assignment as an MP4 document (.mp4) or link

File name: Name your saved file according to your first initial, last name, and the module number (for example, ?RHall Module 1.mp4?)

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NUR1172 section 15 Nutritional Principles in Nursing

Question

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NUR1172 section 15 Nutritional Principles
in Nursing Assignments:

Module 6 Need it for Tuesday morning:

For this discussion forum, find three
interactions between medications and nutrients (food). List the interaction,
foods to avoid while taking the medication, and describe key points that should
be included in client education regarding the interactions.
You can use Epocrates to find your information https://online.epocrates.com/,
or Medline Plus http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/druginformation.html,
or any other evidence based resource.

Module 6: project assignment

In this module, you will continue
submitting work on your project. List three scholarly peer reviewed references
you plan to use. These can be guidelines, scholarly articles, or other
evidence-based sources written within the last five years. Along with this list
include one to two sentences explaining how you plan to use them in your
project.

Submit the three resources in APA format. This reference list is not all
inclusive; you may have to add or discard resources as your project progresses.
Your references on your reference page must match your in text citations.

See the resources below to assist
you with this assignment.

Module 7:

Discussion:

n this assignment you will review a
case that deals with a client who has GERD.

Clinical Case:

Mrs. G. is a 45-year-old female
arrives at the emergency department where you are working with complaints of
burning pain in her chest and throat and a sour taste in her mouth. She states
this pain has been going on for years after she eats certain foods. She has a
large, extended family and does all of the cooking. She is Hispanic and likes
to cook her special recipes because she believes that “these foods are
good for herself and her family.” She is very proud of her cooking and
believes that is one of her main contributions to her family. She has never
been sick and does not like to take pills.

She is examined by the emergency
room doctor and diagnosed with Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The
doctor has ordered medication for you to administer. These medications include
a proton pump inhibitor (Prilosec), and a Histamine 2 blocker (Pepcid). He also
prescribes the proton pump inhibitor to be taken at home for the next two
weeks. Mrs. G. starts to feel better and is ready for discharge. You will be providing
the client teaching and discharge instructions about GERD.

In your discussion about GERD
include:

  • Dietary suggestions you would
    make
  • What foods and liquids she
    should avoid
  • What changes she should make
  • Barriers she will face in
    making these changes and how they can be overcome

Include APA formatted references if
used.

Module 8Written Assignment – Type 1 Diabetes: Planning a Day’s
Meals

Jason is 11 years old and has Type 1
Diabetes. He was diagnosed with Diabetes when he was 5 years old. He is
comfortable taking his “blood sugar” readings during the day. He
likes to participate in sports and is on the soccer team, which practices three
times a week after school. His mother always packs his lunch for school so he
does not have to worry about eating the food in the cafeteria.

For this written assignment plan a
day’s meal for Jason.

  • Include breakfast, lunch,
    dinner, and snacks.
  • In particular, include any
    snacks he may need after school to maintain a balanced diet during soccer
    practice.
  • Also include a brief discussion
    about three issues/considerations regarding nutrition, diabetes, and
    children that nurses must be aware of.

You may use any of the resources
found in this module or any other evidence-based sources (include those as
in-text citations and references using APA Editorial Format).

Module 9 discussion:Diet Therapy Considerations for People Living with HIV/AIDS

https://content.learntoday.info/Learn/stylesheets/rasmussen_2010/tl.gifFor
this discussion you will review “Living well with HIV/AIDS – A manual on
nutritional care and support for people living with HIV/AIDS” http://www.fao.org/docrep/005/y4168e/y4168e00.HTM

Then respond to the following:

1. What are three diet therapy
considerations that must be made for people living with HIV/AIDS?
2. Why is it important for them to adhere to these dietary requirements?
3. What may happen if they don’t?
4. What two strategies can you use to facilitate adherence?

MA279/BSC2347
Section 07 Human Anatomy and Physiology II – Online – 2019 Winter Quarter

Module 08 Discussion – Energy Drinks use scholarly references

Consumption of energy drinks (such
as Redbull®, Monster Energy Drink®, and Rockstar®) among children, teenagers,
and young adults has risen in the last decade. Emergency department visits
relating to energy drink consumption has also risen (Thorlton, 2014). These
drinks contain various vitamins and electrolytes, and other ingredients that
alter the body?s fluid balance.

Research the effects these energy
drinks have on the body and the complications associated with them. In your post,
address the following questions:

  • How do energy drinks influence
    the overall electrolyte and acid-base balance of the body?
  • Should this multi-billion
    dollar industry be more highly regulated? Why or why not?
  • Should energy drink companies
    be allowed to market these products to children? Why or why not?
  • Should it be illegal to sell
    them to anyone under the age of 16? Why or why not?
  • Should these drinks have a
    warning label on them? Why or why not?

Module 09 Discussion – Birth Control

Thanks to the Affordable Care Act,
most forms of birth control are now covered by health insurance with no
out-of-pocket costs, but there are limitations. Research the various
methods/techniques of birth control and find statistical data on unplanned
pregnancies across the United States and within your state.

In your post, address the following
questions:

  • Are you surprised by the pregnancy
    rates within the United States and your state? Why or why not?
  • Should birth control products
    be free to anyone who wants to use it?
  • Should birth control products,
    such as condoms, birth control pills and patches, be readily available for
    teenagers without a parent’s knowledge or consent? Why or why not? If so,
    at what age?

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